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I’m not exactly sure what you’re asking but if you mean, “why would a change in interval from 4k miles extended to 8k miles, consume more oil” then, I would guess because the oil has degraded and thinned out, allowing more oil past the rings. In other words, it consumes more oil in the last 4k miles than the first four. Is that what you were asking?I'm a simple guy....any amount of oil consumption that makes me need to add more in between changes is what I consider 'high'. It doesn't make sense to me how an oil change interval within the objective effective range for a given oil would make a difference in oil consumption...am I missing something there?